Talk:Hades

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Latest comment: 6 years ago by Chuck Entz in topic Hataz
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Hataz

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Could Hades be from hataz? Or vice versa?

Just granpa (talk) 23:42, 1 July 2018 (UTC)Reply

Not likely. To start with, there's an iota (ιいおた) in ᾍδης (Hā́idēs) with no counterpart in Proto-Germanic *hataz- In Homeric Greek it's actually Ἀΐδης (Aḯdēs), with the iota being pronounced as a separate syllable. Also, the t in Proto-Germanic *hataz means that any borrowing would have had to have happened before the Grimm's law sound change, when the speakers of Proto-Germanic were distant tribes in Northern Europe with the Celts between them and the Greeks. The h is a further problem, because, as far as I know, there was no h in Proto-Germanic before the Grimm's law sound change created it from Proto-Indo-European *k. Finally, the meanings don't line up very well: in pre-Christian times, Hades was believed to be the realm of all the dead- both good and evil- so a negative emotion like hate wouldn't be particularly associated with it any more than a positive one. Chuck Entz (talk) 02:22, 2 July 2018 (UTC)Reply